“It’s been mathematically proven [anti-virus can't stop viruses]”












2















What analysis was Bruce Schneier referencing when he wrote:




Viruses have no “cure.” It’s been mathematically proven that it is always possible to write a virus that any existing antivirus program can’t stop." [0]



[0] Secrets & Lies. Bruce Schneier. Page 154











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    What analysis was Bruce Schneier referencing when he wrote:




    Viruses have no “cure.” It’s been mathematically proven that it is always possible to write a virus that any existing antivirus program can’t stop." [0]



    [0] Secrets & Lies. Bruce Schneier. Page 154











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      What analysis was Bruce Schneier referencing when he wrote:




      Viruses have no “cure.” It’s been mathematically proven that it is always possible to write a virus that any existing antivirus program can’t stop." [0]



      [0] Secrets & Lies. Bruce Schneier. Page 154











      share|improve this question









      New contributor




      Cate is a new contributor to this site. Take care in asking for clarification, commenting, and answering.
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      What analysis was Bruce Schneier referencing when he wrote:




      Viruses have no “cure.” It’s been mathematically proven that it is always possible to write a virus that any existing antivirus program can’t stop." [0]



      [0] Secrets & Lies. Bruce Schneier. Page 154








      virus antivirus






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      edited 31 mins ago









      forest

      34.4k16113118




      34.4k16113118






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      asked 2 hours ago









      CateCate

      111




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          1 Answer
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          Under one possible interpretation of that, it's a result of Rice's theorem. A program is malicious if it performs some malicious action, which makes it a semantic property. Some programs are malicious and some aren't, which makes it a non-trivial property. Thus, by Rice's theorem, it's undecidable in the general case whether a program is malicious.






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          • Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

            – forest
            1 hour ago











          • I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

            – Steve Sether
            10 mins ago











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          1 Answer
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          active

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          Under one possible interpretation of that, it's a result of Rice's theorem. A program is malicious if it performs some malicious action, which makes it a semantic property. Some programs are malicious and some aren't, which makes it a non-trivial property. Thus, by Rice's theorem, it's undecidable in the general case whether a program is malicious.






          share|improve this answer
























          • Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

            – forest
            1 hour ago











          • I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

            – Steve Sether
            10 mins ago
















          3














          Under one possible interpretation of that, it's a result of Rice's theorem. A program is malicious if it performs some malicious action, which makes it a semantic property. Some programs are malicious and some aren't, which makes it a non-trivial property. Thus, by Rice's theorem, it's undecidable in the general case whether a program is malicious.






          share|improve this answer
























          • Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

            – forest
            1 hour ago











          • I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

            – Steve Sether
            10 mins ago














          3












          3








          3







          Under one possible interpretation of that, it's a result of Rice's theorem. A program is malicious if it performs some malicious action, which makes it a semantic property. Some programs are malicious and some aren't, which makes it a non-trivial property. Thus, by Rice's theorem, it's undecidable in the general case whether a program is malicious.






          share|improve this answer













          Under one possible interpretation of that, it's a result of Rice's theorem. A program is malicious if it performs some malicious action, which makes it a semantic property. Some programs are malicious and some aren't, which makes it a non-trivial property. Thus, by Rice's theorem, it's undecidable in the general case whether a program is malicious.







          share|improve this answer












          share|improve this answer



          share|improve this answer










          answered 1 hour ago









          Joseph SibleJoseph Sible

          1,230314




          1,230314













          • Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

            – forest
            1 hour ago











          • I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

            – Steve Sether
            10 mins ago



















          • Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

            – forest
            1 hour ago











          • I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

            – Steve Sether
            10 mins ago

















          Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

          – forest
          1 hour ago





          Ah I think this is indeed what Schneier was referencing. This answer is better than mine.

          – forest
          1 hour ago













          I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

          – Steve Sether
          10 mins ago





          I'm not a mathematician, but I might guess that Godel's incompleteness theorems might also apply.

          – Steve Sether
          10 mins ago










          Cate is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.










          draft saved

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          Cate is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.













          Cate is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.












          Cate is a new contributor. Be nice, and check out our Code of Conduct.
















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