Fundamental Theorem of Calculus with Different Variables
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How can one explain that $$frac{d}{dx}left(int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}right) = cos(x^2+x)$$
Without solving the integral?
I know it's related to the fundamental theorem of calculus, but here we have a derivative with respect to $x$, while the antiderivative is with respect to $t$.
Thank you.
calculus integration derivatives definite-integrals
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add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can one explain that $$frac{d}{dx}left(int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}right) = cos(x^2+x)$$
Without solving the integral?
I know it's related to the fundamental theorem of calculus, but here we have a derivative with respect to $x$, while the antiderivative is with respect to $t$.
Thank you.
calculus integration derivatives definite-integrals
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
How can one explain that $$frac{d}{dx}left(int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}right) = cos(x^2+x)$$
Without solving the integral?
I know it's related to the fundamental theorem of calculus, but here we have a derivative with respect to $x$, while the antiderivative is with respect to $t$.
Thank you.
calculus integration derivatives definite-integrals
$endgroup$
How can one explain that $$frac{d}{dx}left(int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}right) = cos(x^2+x)$$
Without solving the integral?
I know it's related to the fundamental theorem of calculus, but here we have a derivative with respect to $x$, while the antiderivative is with respect to $t$.
Thank you.
calculus integration derivatives definite-integrals
calculus integration derivatives definite-integrals
edited 21 mins ago
KM101
5,9161423
5,9161423
asked 31 mins ago
NetanelNetanel
774
774
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2 Answers
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$begingroup$
Say $f(t)=cos(t^2+t)$ and an antiderivative is $F(t)$. The integral in question is, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
$$F(x)-F(0)$$
$F(0)$ is a constant and disappears upon differentiating with respect to $x$, whereas $F(x)$ becomes $f(x)$ once again. Thus, after differentiation we must have the RHS as $cos(x^2+x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus, $int_a^b{f(t)dt}=F(b)-F(a)$, where $F'(x)=f(x)$. In this case:
$$int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}=F(x)-F(0)$$
$$frac{d}{dx}(F(x)-F(0))=F'(x)=f(x)=cos(x^2+x)$$
$F(0)$ disappears after differentiation because it is a constant
$endgroup$
add a comment |
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2 Answers
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active
oldest
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2 Answers
2
active
oldest
votes
active
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active
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votes
$begingroup$
Say $f(t)=cos(t^2+t)$ and an antiderivative is $F(t)$. The integral in question is, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
$$F(x)-F(0)$$
$F(0)$ is a constant and disappears upon differentiating with respect to $x$, whereas $F(x)$ becomes $f(x)$ once again. Thus, after differentiation we must have the RHS as $cos(x^2+x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Say $f(t)=cos(t^2+t)$ and an antiderivative is $F(t)$. The integral in question is, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
$$F(x)-F(0)$$
$F(0)$ is a constant and disappears upon differentiating with respect to $x$, whereas $F(x)$ becomes $f(x)$ once again. Thus, after differentiation we must have the RHS as $cos(x^2+x)$.
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
Say $f(t)=cos(t^2+t)$ and an antiderivative is $F(t)$. The integral in question is, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
$$F(x)-F(0)$$
$F(0)$ is a constant and disappears upon differentiating with respect to $x$, whereas $F(x)$ becomes $f(x)$ once again. Thus, after differentiation we must have the RHS as $cos(x^2+x)$.
$endgroup$
Say $f(t)=cos(t^2+t)$ and an antiderivative is $F(t)$. The integral in question is, by the fundamental theorem of calculus,
$$F(x)-F(0)$$
$F(0)$ is a constant and disappears upon differentiating with respect to $x$, whereas $F(x)$ becomes $f(x)$ once again. Thus, after differentiation we must have the RHS as $cos(x^2+x)$.
answered 23 mins ago
Parcly TaxelParcly Taxel
41.5k137299
41.5k137299
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$begingroup$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus, $int_a^b{f(t)dt}=F(b)-F(a)$, where $F'(x)=f(x)$. In this case:
$$int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}=F(x)-F(0)$$
$$frac{d}{dx}(F(x)-F(0))=F'(x)=f(x)=cos(x^2+x)$$
$F(0)$ disappears after differentiation because it is a constant
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus, $int_a^b{f(t)dt}=F(b)-F(a)$, where $F'(x)=f(x)$. In this case:
$$int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}=F(x)-F(0)$$
$$frac{d}{dx}(F(x)-F(0))=F'(x)=f(x)=cos(x^2+x)$$
$F(0)$ disappears after differentiation because it is a constant
$endgroup$
add a comment |
$begingroup$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus, $int_a^b{f(t)dt}=F(b)-F(a)$, where $F'(x)=f(x)$. In this case:
$$int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}=F(x)-F(0)$$
$$frac{d}{dx}(F(x)-F(0))=F'(x)=f(x)=cos(x^2+x)$$
$F(0)$ disappears after differentiation because it is a constant
$endgroup$
By the fundamental theorem of calculus, $int_a^b{f(t)dt}=F(b)-F(a)$, where $F'(x)=f(x)$. In this case:
$$int_0^x{cos(t^2+t)dt}=F(x)-F(0)$$
$$frac{d}{dx}(F(x)-F(0))=F'(x)=f(x)=cos(x^2+x)$$
$F(0)$ disappears after differentiation because it is a constant
answered 16 mins ago
Lorenzo B.Lorenzo B.
1,8202520
1,8202520
add a comment |
add a comment |
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