Proof involving the spectral radius and the Jordan canonical form












3












$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $$lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$$ then $rho(A) < 1$, where $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



Hint: Use the Jordan canonical form.




I am self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem — I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






linear-algebra matrices jordan-normal-form spectral-radius







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$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    39 mins ago
















3












$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $$lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$$ then $rho(A) < 1$, where $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



Hint: Use the Jordan canonical form.




I am self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem — I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






linear-algebra matrices jordan-normal-form spectral-radius







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$












  • $begingroup$
    This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    39 mins ago














3












3








3





$begingroup$



Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $$lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$$ then $rho(A) < 1$, where $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



Hint: Use the Jordan canonical form.




I am self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem — I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






linear-algebra matrices jordan-normal-form spectral-radius







share|cite|improve this question











$endgroup$





Let $A$ be a square matrix. Show that if $$lim_{n to infty} A^{n} = 0$$ then $rho(A) < 1$, where $rho(A)$ denotes the spectral radius of $A$.



Hint: Use the Jordan canonical form.




I am self-studying and have been working through a few linear algebra exercises. I'm struggling a bit in applying the hint to this problem — I don't know where to start. Any help appreciated.






linear-algebra matrices jordan-normal-form spectral-radius




linear-algebra matrices jordan-normal-form spectral-radius






share|cite|improve this question















share|cite|improve this question













share|cite|improve this question




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edited 1 hour ago









Rodrigo de Azevedo

13.2k41961




13.2k41961










asked 2 hours ago









mXdXmXdX

1118




1118












  • $begingroup$
    This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    39 mins ago


















  • $begingroup$
    This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
    $endgroup$
    – copper.hat
    39 mins ago
















$begingroup$
This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
39 mins ago




$begingroup$
This follows from $A^n v = lambda^n v$. The other direction is straighforward using the Jordan form.
$endgroup$
– copper.hat
39 mins ago










2 Answers
2






active

oldest

votes


















7












$begingroup$

You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






share|cite|improve this answer









$endgroup$





















    3












    $begingroup$

    Hint



    $$A=PJP^{-1} \
    J=begin{bmatrix}
    lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
    0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
    end{bmatrix}$$
    where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



    Prove by induction that
    $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
    lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
    0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
    ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
    0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
    end{bmatrix}$$
    where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
    with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



    Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$













    • $begingroup$
      So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
      $endgroup$
      – mXdX
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
      $endgroup$
      – N. S.
      2 hours ago










    • $begingroup$
      I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
      $endgroup$
      – mXdX
      1 hour ago












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    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes








    2 Answers
    2






    active

    oldest

    votes









    active

    oldest

    votes






    active

    oldest

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    7












    $begingroup$

    You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






    share|cite|improve this answer









    $endgroup$


















      7












      $begingroup$

      You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






      share|cite|improve this answer









      $endgroup$
















        7












        7








        7





        $begingroup$

        You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.






        share|cite|improve this answer









        $endgroup$



        You don't really need Jordan canonical form. If $rho(A) ge 1$, $A$ has an eigenvalue $lambda$ with $|lambda| ge 1$. That eigenvalue has an eigenvector $v$. Then $A^n v = lambda^n v$, so $|A^n v| = |lambda|^n |v| ge |v|$ does not go to $0$ as $n to infty$, which is impossible if $A^n to 0$.







        share|cite|improve this answer












        share|cite|improve this answer



        share|cite|improve this answer










        answered 2 hours ago









        Robert IsraelRobert Israel

        332k23221478




        332k23221478























            3












            $begingroup$

            Hint



            $$A=PJP^{-1} \
            J=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



            Prove by induction that
            $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
            0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
            with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



            Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              1 hour ago
















            3












            $begingroup$

            Hint



            $$A=PJP^{-1} \
            J=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



            Prove by induction that
            $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
            0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
            with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



            Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$













            • $begingroup$
              So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              1 hour ago














            3












            3








            3





            $begingroup$

            Hint



            $$A=PJP^{-1} \
            J=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



            Prove by induction that
            $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
            0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
            with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



            Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.






            share|cite|improve this answer









            $endgroup$



            Hint



            $$A=PJP^{-1} \
            J=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1 & * & 0 & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            0& lambda_2 & * & 0 & 0 & ... & 0 \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where each $*$ is either $0$ or $1$.



            Prove by induction that
            $$J^m=begin{bmatrix}
            lambda_1^m & star & star & star & star & ... & star \
            0& lambda_2^m & star & star & star & ... & star \
            ...&...&...&...&....&....&....\
            0 & 0 & 0 & 0&0&...&lambda_n^m \
            end{bmatrix}$$
            where the $star$s represent numbers, that is $J^m$ is an upper triangular matrix
            with the $m$^th powers of the eigenvalues on the diagonal.



            Note The above claim for $J^m$ is not fully using that $J$ is a Jordan cannonical form. It only uses that $J$ is upper triangular.







            share|cite|improve this answer












            share|cite|improve this answer



            share|cite|improve this answer










            answered 2 hours ago









            N. S.N. S.

            105k7115210




            105k7115210












            • $begingroup$
              So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              1 hour ago


















            • $begingroup$
              So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
              $endgroup$
              – N. S.
              2 hours ago










            • $begingroup$
              I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
              $endgroup$
              – mXdX
              1 hour ago
















            $begingroup$
            So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
            $endgroup$
            – mXdX
            2 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            So, $A^{m} = PJ^{m}P^{-1}$. If I can show what you're asking by induction, would the limit of $J^{m} = 0$? I'm sure it is because the diagonal entries are less than one, right?
            $endgroup$
            – mXdX
            2 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
            $endgroup$
            – N. S.
            2 hours ago




            $begingroup$
            @mXdX Well, that is the point. First $$lim_m J^m= lim_m P^{-1} A^m P =0$$ Now, since $lim J^m=0$ you can deduce that the diagonal entries converge to zero, meaning $lambda_j^m to 0$. This implies that $|lambda_j |<1$
            $endgroup$
            – N. S.
            2 hours ago












            $begingroup$
            I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
            $endgroup$
            – mXdX
            1 hour ago




            $begingroup$
            I understand now. Thanks. So I would have to show, like you said, that the diagonal entries of $J^{m}$ are the $m$th powers of the eigenvalues.
            $endgroup$
            – mXdX
            1 hour ago


















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